I'm doing a new Ordinal Regression with a DV that has 5 categories ("Significantly Better" to "Significantly Worse"). I have 7 explanatory variables with 5 categories each, and 15 explanatory variables with 2 categories ("Yes" and "No") each.
PLUM CQIA7 BY CQIA5_1 CQIA5_2 CQIA5_3 CQIA5_4 CQIA5_5 CQIA5_6 CQIA5_7 CQIA6_1 CQIA6_4 CQIA6_5 CQIA6_6 CQIA6_7 CQIA6_8 CQIA6_9 CQIA6_10 CQIA6_11 CQIA6_12 CQIA6_13 CQIA6_16 CQIA6_17 CQIA6_18 CQIA6_19 /CRITERIA=CIN(95) DELTA(0) LCONVERGE(0) MXITER(100) MXSTEP(5) PCONVERGE(1.0E-6) SINGULAR(1.0E-8) /LINK=LOGIT /PRINT=FIT PARAMETER SUMMARY TPARALLEL /SAVE=PREDCAT. In the results, the parallel lines test is passed; it is not significant. Many coefficients are significant and the predicted category is precisely correct in 60% of the cases in the test data set. David Garson discusses some instances in which it may be permissible to proceed even if the parallel lines test is significant. I would like to understand more about this. Here are coefficients from these results, which pass that parallel lines test: Looking over this, I don't yet see any b coefficients that seem similar. What am I missing? Thanks very much in advance to all for any info. Best, -Vik
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