Each interpretation is the reciprocal of the other. If the variables were coded the other way around, you would get a result that said the odds of a male improving were 67% of the odds of a female improving.
- James
> -----Original Message-----
> From: SPSSX(r) Discussion [mailto:
[hidden email]]On
> Behalf Of
> John Page
> Sent: Friday, May 02, 2008 10:41 AM
> To:
[hidden email]
> Subject: How to interpret odds ratio
>
>
> Hi everyone,
>
> I am having problems with interpreting odds ration in
> Logistic Regression.
> In his book David Howell(2002, p.593)wrote:
> "If we used Sex as a predictor and coded Male=1, Female=2, then ...
> suppose that Sex had been a predictor in the cancer study and that the
> coefficient was 0.40. Exponentiating this, we would have
> 1.49. This would
> mean that, holding all other variables constant, the odds of a female
> improving are about 1.5 times greater than the odds of a male
> improving."[end of quotation]
>
> My question is why the conclusion is not just opposite? How can we
> interpret the odds ration in favour of one sex rather than other?
>
> I appreciate your comments.
>
> Have a lovely weekend,
>
> John
>
>
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