Just a stab here: Is the data used in the analysis the result of a
random survey design? Or alternatively, were the men participating in
the study/survey equally represented from the two groups - working men
and non-working men? Another question I would think to ask would be how
long were the men non-participants in the labor force? (On average)
Maybe there was more movement? (lower longevity at jobs, etc.)
HTH
Mike
-----Original Message-----
From: SPSSX(r) Discussion [mailto:
[hidden email]] On Behalf Of
Dimitris Nikolaou
Sent: Wednesday, December 20, 2006 7:18 PM
To:
[hidden email]
Subject: problem with education
Hello to everybody!
I am currently working on the relationship between labor force
participation and health. Although when I study the population, the
"education" variable has a positive effect on labor force participation
(that is what must hold), when I study only the men, "education" has a
negative effect on LFP. Does anyone have any literature in his mind that
could help me support my finding? Or any idea why this is happening?
Thanks in advance!
Dimitris!
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