http://spssx-discussion.165.s1.nabble.com/Comparing-2-groups-of-variables-tp5075380p5075452.html
This is a pretty opaque statement of a problem.
The simplest way that I read it reminds me of the origins
of factor analysis - looking at a correlation matrix, and looking
at the matrix after partialing out one or more variables.
Thus - if you have (say) 10 variables, v1 to v10, and you want
to know whether v1 to v5 "account for the useful variance", you
could look at the correlation matrix of v6 to v10 which is produced by
"partialing out" v1 to v5. Do the off-diagonals differ from zero,
by more than random deviations, or has all the "useful variance"
been removed?
James Stieger's routines probably include a test of residual r's.
If this isn't what you have in mind, try again.
--
Rich Ulrich
Date: Wed, 14 Dec 2011 12:49:00 -0600
From:
[hidden email]Subject: Comparing 2 groups of variables
To:
[hidden email]
I am trying figure out how much of the variance within a group of variables is explained by the a subgroup of variables. Can anyone point me in the right direction?
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