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Re: propensity score for 3 treatments

Posted by Poes, Matthew Joseph on Nov 30, 2012; 2:41pm
URL: http://spssx-discussion.165.s1.nabble.com/propensity-score-for-3-treatments-tp5716540p5716559.html

I believe you would use a multinomial logistic regression.  However, I think it’s important to consider what it is you are trying to accomplish in order to ensure that your model is setup correctly.  In a typical propensity score case of one treatment condition and one control condition, you are trying to ensure that all the cases in the control condition are the same as those in the treatment condition (The probability is equal across groups).  The Control condition cases are thus assigned a likelihood score for being in the treatment, instead of control.  Of course, to ensure equality, we do this for all cases, those in treatment as well, as we may have treatment cases that are more similar to or more likely to be in control, but we frame it around the control units being in treatment.  In your case, there isn’t one treatment, but multiple treatment groups.  Presumably there is one control condition, and two treatment conditions.  In that case, what are you referencing it too?  I would argue that we weren’t really referencing it to the treatment condition in the first place, that was just an easy way to think about the problem.  In fact, we were simply creating a probability that individuals were in the group they were supposed to be in (Realistically we don’t want to be able to predict the group they are in, we want the probabilities to be equal across groups).  Since our actual goal is to create probabilities that indicate that everyone was placed as they should (with the goal being we can’t actually tell who should have been in what group), the referent group doesn’t matter.  In your situation, I’d actually pick the control group as my referent group.

 

I’ll also put this out there.  A propensity score is only as good as the variables used to predict the probability.  I worked on a problem where the project PI was very excited that his propensity score model was non-significant with poor ability to place participants.  He correctly understood that this indicated an inability to differentiate the participants by these variables, what he failed to realize was that he lacked appropriate instrumental variables for modeling this.  In other words, you really need to be sure the model is solid as well.  It’s highly unlikely that the model will be non-significant if done right, you just want a generally poor fit with a solid set of instrumental variables.  

 

Matthew J Poes

Research Data Specialist

Center for Prevention Research and Development

University of Illinois

510 Devonshire Dr.

Champaign, IL 61820

Phone: 217-265-4576

email: [hidden email]

 

 

From: SPSSX(r) Discussion [mailto:[hidden email]] On Behalf Of la volta statistics
Sent: Friday, November 30, 2012 7:57 AM
To: [hidden email]
Subject: propensity score for 3 treatments

 

Hi all

To control for confounding bias from non-random treatment assignment with 3 different treatments, I would like to calculate a propensity score I later can use in a cox regression model. I know the procedures for a two-treatment approach (logistic regression). But how would I calculate such a score when I have three treatments?

 

Thanks in advance

Christian

 

 

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