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Re: Pretest to Posttest: A question of reliability

Posted by Art Kendall on Dec 22, 2012; 11:45am
URL: http://spssx-discussion.165.s1.nabble.com/Pretest-to-Posttest-A-question-of-reliability-tp5717078p5717108.html

Ryan
Do you have an example set of syntax to do this?  Did you use OMS?
Art Kendall
Social Research Consultants
On 12/21/2012 11:38 PM, R B wrote:
Eins,
Reliability = true score variance / observed score variance
where
observed score variance = true score variance + error score variance
Within a one-factor confirmatory factor analytic modeling framework, you can estimate true score variance and error score variance as follows:
estimated true score variance = [sum(factor loadings)]^2
estimated error score variance = sum(error variances) + 2*[sum(error covariances)]
estimated reliability = estimated true score variance / (estimated true score variance + estimated error score variance)
The formula above employed on data from a single testing occasion will yield a more accurate estimate of composite score reliability than Cronbach's alpha.
 
Reference: Brown TA (2006). Confirmatory factor analysis for applied research; Kenny DA, editor. New York: The Guilford Press.
 
Estimating test-retest reliability using a structural equation model is another matter for another time.
Ryan
On Fri, Dec 21, 2012 at 9:35 AM, E. Bernardo <[hidden email]> wrote:
Dear RB, Ulrich, et al.

Sorry for the poor English. 

Let me rephrase the scenario.  Our variable is latent with 10 items.  The ten-item five point likert type questionnaire were administered to a sample in two different occasions, F1 then F2.  So we have two correlated factors F1 and F2  and we want to treat them as latent variables using AMOS 20.  We expect that the 10 items are loaded significantly (p<.0.05) to F1 and then to F2.  However, the actual data showed that some items have insignificant (p>.05) factor loadings on F1 and F2; thus, the set of items that loaded to F1 are different from the set of items that loaded to F2.  Our question was: Can we proceed to correlate F1 and F2.  Is this not a measurement problem?

Eins


To: [hidden email]
Sent: Thursday, December 20, 2012 9:16 PM
Subject: Re: Pretest to Posttest: A question of reliability

My responses are interspersed below.

On Thu, Dec 20, 2012 at 10:12 PM, E. Bernardo <[hidden email]> wrote:
Dear Everyone,

We do a pretest-posttest analysis for a unidimentional scale with 10 items (say, Q1, Q2, ...,Q10).  Using the pretest data, only four items (Q2, Q3, Q4, Q5) were significant, while using the posttest data six items(Q1, Q2, Q6, Q8, Q9, Q10) were significant. 
 
You are providing conflicting information above. You state that you ran a pretest-posttest analysis for a "unidimensional scale with 10 items" which suggests to me that you derived a composite score to use as the dependent variable (e.g., you computed a sum or mean across all items for each subject). However, you go on  to suggest that you performed pre-post analyses per item. Please clarify.
 
Noticed that the scale has a different set of items in the pretest and posttest scenario. 
 
 What do you mean that the scale has a different set of items during both measurement periods? Why?
 
Our question is, is the scale not reliable?
 
The reliability of composite scores on a measuring instrument and/or reliability on change scores are unrelated to what you've been discussing thus far, in my estimation.
 
 

Suppose we extend the scenario above to more than two measures (say, Pretest, Posttest1, Posttest2, Posttest3, Postest4) so that we will use the Latent Growth Modeling(LGM) to model the latent change.  Is it a requirement in LGM that all the scale indicators/items are significant across tests?
 
Technically, just because you have more than two measurement points does not make the analysis an LGC. You can have an LGC with only two points at which each subject was measured. Anyway, the answer to your final question is no.
 

Thank you for your inputs.

Eins





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Art Kendall
Social Research Consultants