But you are dividing by zero which is a no no when you divided by
(a2 – a.b) since a = b
Mathew Chandler
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From: SPSSX(r) Discussion [[hidden email]]
On Behalf Of Martin Holt
Sent: December 11, 2018 11:54 AM
To: [hidden email]
Subject: Proof 2=1
Xmas draws nearer!
For young statisticians...some festive fun
Proof that 2 = 1
a = b
a2 = a.b
a2 + a2 = a.b + a2
2a2 = a.b + a2
2a2 – 2ab = a.b + a2 – 2ab
2a2 – 2ab = a2 – a.b
2(a2 – a.b) = a2 – a.b
Dividing through by (a2 – a.b) gives 2=1
Q.E.D.
Martin P. Holt
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