When you look at the group by time means I imagine that at FU1 and FU2 that group 1-group 2 difference is about the same as at post. Would that be true? If so,
you have an improvement that is sustained through the follow-up period but also no further improvement. Are you analyzing the data as a repeated measures model with or without a random intercept or as a mixed model? With respect to what you report, as the
investigator you have to decide but I think the complete but full story should be told.
Gene Maguin
From: SPSSX(r) Discussion [mailto:[hidden email]]
On Behalf Of Zdaniuk, Bozena
Sent: Monday, March 30, 2020 3:13 AM
To: [hidden email]
Subject: analysis question
hello everyone,
I am trying to figure out how to best analyze my data. I have pre-treatment, post-treatment, and two follow-up time points for two treatment groups. When I analyze just pre and post treatment points
(using MIXED procedure) I find an interaction of group x time indicating that Treatment A improves more than Treatment B. But if I analyze all four points, both treatments maintain their gains but no more changes after post-treatment for either group and the
interaction of group x time (all four time points) disappears.
Would it make sense to still want to report on the interaction from pre- to post-treatment? if yes, what is the best way to do it? Or I should just ignore that interaction if it does not show when
all four times are in the analysis?
Any thoughts greatly appreciated!
cheers,
bozena
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