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Dear List. I just did a zero-order correlation between guns and drugs in the home and job satisfaction among home health care workers and obtain a negative correlation. More guns and drugs the less the job satisfaction. But when I introduce other hazard variables and control for them the relation between guns and drugs with job satisfaction now becomes positive (more guns and drugs the more the job satisfaction). I understand statistically why this can happen but how to I explain this to a lay audience. Also, is there some way that I can decipher exactly what is causing this to happen. martin sherman
Martin F. Sherman, Ph.D. Professor of Psychology Director of Masters Education: Thesis Track Loyola College Psychology Department 222 B Beatty Hall 4501 North Charles Street Baltimore, MD 21210 410 617-2417 (office) 410 617-5341 (fax) [hidden email] ===================== To manage your subscription to SPSSX-L, send a message to [hidden email] (not to SPSSX-L), with no body text except the command. To leave the list, send the command SIGNOFF SPSSX-L For a list of commands to manage subscriptions, send the command INFO REFCARD |
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I think it will all depend on what the other hazard variables are and
how they relate to guns and drugs in the home. Basically, if you model guns and drugs in the home on the other hazard variables and then take the residuals and correlate them to job satisfaction, the correlation will be positive. The question is, what's left in the guns and drugs variable after you have partialed out the other hazards. Paul R. Swank, Ph.D. Professor and Director of Research Children's Learning Institute University of Texas Health Science Center - Houston -----Original Message----- From: SPSSX(r) Discussion [mailto:[hidden email]] On Behalf Of Martin Sherman Sent: Friday, July 11, 2008 12:42 PM To: [hidden email] Subject: zero-order corr and partial corr in opposite directions Dear List. I just did a zero-order correlation between guns and drugs in the home and job satisfaction among home health care workers and obtain a negative correlation. More guns and drugs the less the job satisfaction. But when I introduce other hazard variables and control for them the relation between guns and drugs with job satisfaction now becomes positive (more guns and drugs the more the job satisfaction). I understand statistically why this can happen but how to I explain this to a lay audience. Also, is there some way that I can decipher exactly what is causing this to happen. martin sherman Martin F. Sherman, Ph.D. Professor of Psychology Director of Masters Education: Thesis Track Loyola College Psychology Department 222 B Beatty Hall 4501 North Charles Street Baltimore, MD 21210 410 617-2417 (office) 410 617-5341 (fax) [hidden email] ===================== To manage your subscription to SPSSX-L, send a message to [hidden email] (not to SPSSX-L), with no body text except the command. To leave the list, send the command SIGNOFF SPSSX-L For a list of commands to manage subscriptions, send the command INFO REFCARD ===================== To manage your subscription to SPSSX-L, send a message to [hidden email] (not to SPSSX-L), with no body text except the command. To leave the list, send the command SIGNOFF SPSSX-L For a list of commands to manage subscriptions, send the command INFO REFCARD |
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