zero-order corr and partial corr in opposite directions

classic Classic list List threaded Threaded
2 messages Options
Reply | Threaded
Open this post in threaded view
|

zero-order corr and partial corr in opposite directions

msherman
Dear List. I just did a zero-order correlation between guns and drugs in the home and job satisfaction among home health care workers and obtain a negative correlation. More guns and drugs the less the job satisfaction. But when I introduce other hazard variables and control for them the relation between guns and drugs with job satisfaction now becomes positive (more guns and drugs the more the job satisfaction). I understand statistically why this can happen but how to I explain this to a lay audience. Also, is there some way that I can decipher exactly what is causing this to happen.   martin sherman

Martin F. Sherman, Ph.D.
Professor of Psychology
Director of Masters Education: Thesis Track
Loyola College
Psychology Department
222 B Beatty Hall
4501 North Charles Street
Baltimore, MD 21210

410 617-2417 (office)
410 617-5341 (fax)

[hidden email]

=====================
To manage your subscription to SPSSX-L, send a message to
[hidden email] (not to SPSSX-L), with no body text except the
command. To leave the list, send the command
SIGNOFF SPSSX-L
For a list of commands to manage subscriptions, send the command
INFO REFCARD
Reply | Threaded
Open this post in threaded view
|

Re: zero-order corr and partial corr in opposite directions

Swank, Paul R
I think it will all depend on what the other hazard variables are and
how they relate to guns and drugs in the home. Basically, if you model
guns and drugs in the home on the other hazard variables and then take
the residuals and correlate them to job satisfaction, the correlation
will be positive. The question is, what's left in the guns and drugs
variable after you have partialed out the other hazards.

Paul R. Swank, Ph.D.
Professor and Director of Research
Children's Learning Institute
University of Texas Health Science Center - Houston


-----Original Message-----
From: SPSSX(r) Discussion [mailto:[hidden email]] On Behalf Of
Martin Sherman
Sent: Friday, July 11, 2008 12:42 PM
To: [hidden email]
Subject: zero-order corr and partial corr in opposite directions

Dear List. I just did a zero-order correlation between guns and drugs in
the home and job satisfaction among home health care workers and obtain
a negative correlation. More guns and drugs the less the job
satisfaction. But when I introduce other hazard variables and control
for them the relation between guns and drugs with job satisfaction now
becomes positive (more guns and drugs the more the job satisfaction). I
understand statistically why this can happen but how to I explain this
to a lay audience. Also, is there some way that I can decipher exactly
what is causing this to happen.   martin sherman

Martin F. Sherman, Ph.D.
Professor of Psychology
Director of Masters Education: Thesis Track
Loyola College
Psychology Department
222 B Beatty Hall
4501 North Charles Street
Baltimore, MD 21210

410 617-2417 (office)
410 617-5341 (fax)

[hidden email]

=====================
To manage your subscription to SPSSX-L, send a message to
[hidden email] (not to SPSSX-L), with no body text except the
command. To leave the list, send the command
SIGNOFF SPSSX-L
For a list of commands to manage subscriptions, send the command
INFO REFCARD

=====================
To manage your subscription to SPSSX-L, send a message to
[hidden email] (not to SPSSX-L), with no body text except the
command. To leave the list, send the command
SIGNOFF SPSSX-L
For a list of commands to manage subscriptions, send the command
INFO REFCARD