I used both Spearman Brown Prophecy formula and also used the sum of item variance over total variance formula to calculate the Cronbach Alpha. For a larger data set 6 items 20 cases, the results turned out the same. Then I tried to demonstrate if two items are highly related, then alpha should be very close to 1. The following data turned out very different results. V1 v2 40 60 36 56 80 100 55 76 By using average correlation coefficients the result is 1 but using variance approach the result is totally different. The data set does not have any meaning but why this happened? My questions are 1. Does SPSS use average correlation coefficient approach to calculate alpha? 2. Why sometimes the results match and others does not. Thanks. Bill |
Spearman Brown uses a different model than does coefficient alpha. Coefficient alpha is the average of all Guttman-Flanagan split halves, not Spearman Brown. The Spearman Brown assumes parallel items whereas the Guttman-Flanagan assumes essentially tau equivalent items. Dr. Paul R. Swank, Professor Health Promotion and Behavioral Sciences School of Public Health University of Texas Health Science Center Houston From: SPSSX(r) Discussion [mailto:[hidden email]] On Behalf Of Wu, Yow Wu I used both Spearman Brown Prophecy formula and also used the sum of item variance over total variance formula to calculate the Cronbach Alpha. For a larger data set 6 items 20 cases, the results turned out the same. Then I tried to demonstrate if two items are highly related, then alpha should be very close to 1. The following data turned out very different results. V1 v2 40 60 36 56 80 100 55 76 By using average correlation coefficients the result is 1 but using variance approach the result is totally different. The data set does not have any meaning but why this happened? My questions are 1. Does SPSS use average correlation coefficient approach to calculate alpha? 2. Why sometimes the results match and others does not. Thanks. Bill |
In reply to this post by Bill Wu
SPSS gives you more than one version of alpha, and
gives them different labels. I think you can find computation formulas in the documentation. -- Rich Ulrich Date: Thu, 18 Oct 2012 13:27:52 -0400 From: [hidden email] Subject: Cronbach Alpha To: [hidden email] I used both Spearman Brown Prophecy formula and also used the sum of item variance over total variance formula to calculate the Cronbach Alpha. For a larger data set 6 items 20 cases, the results turned out the same. Then I tried to demonstrate if two items are highly related, then alpha should be very close to 1. The following data turned out very different results.
V1 v2 40 60 36 56 80 100 55 76
By using average correlation coefficients the result is 1 but using variance approach the result is totally different. The data set does not have any meaning but why this happened? My questions are 1. Does SPSS use average correlation coefficient approach to calculate alpha? 2. Why sometimes the results match and others does not.
Thanks.
Bill
|
In reply to this post by Bill Wu
Actually, I get the same results by all formulas. With the original variance formula:
So alpha = [k/(k-1)](1 – sum of item vars/test var)
= 2*(1 – 596.6875/1193.1875)
= 2*(1 - .5000)
= 2*(.5)
= 1.0 (to rounding error)
This is the same as SPS gets and also if you use either the Spearman-Brown formula based on the covariance approach or on the averaged correlation approach.
Harley
Dr. Harley Baker
Professor of Psychology
Madera Hall 2413
California State University Channel Islands
One University Drive
Camarillo, CA 93012
805.437.8997
From: <Wu>, Yow Wu <[hidden email]>
Reply-To: "Wu, Yow Wu" <[hidden email]> Date: Thursday, October 18, 2012 10:27 AM To: "[hidden email]" <[hidden email]> Subject: Cronbach Alpha I used both Spearman Brown Prophecy formula and also used the sum of item variance over total variance formula to calculate the Cronbach Alpha.
For a larger data set 6 items 20 cases, the results turned out the same. Then I tried to demonstrate if two items are highly related, then alpha should be very close to 1. The following data turned out very different results. V1 v2 40 60 36 56 80 100 55 76 By using average correlation coefficients the result is 1 but using variance approach the result is totally different. The data set does not have any meaning but why this happened? My questions are 1.
Does SPSS use average correlation coefficient approach to calculate alpha? 2.
Why sometimes the results match and others does not. Thanks. Bill |
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