Thanks to all that responded. I understand the problem that Diana pointed out, that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between OR and chi-square. I didn’t know that before. What I’d like to ask about now is this specific situation: the association between a dichotomous variable and a continuous variable. The association could be expressed as a t/F value or (point biserial) correlation or as an odds ratio (OR). The choice depends on which variable is thought of as the dependent. Given sufficient summary information (e.g., Ns, means, SDs by group) can a t/F/r analysis be manipulated to extract the B0 and B1 (intercept and slope) coefficients in a logistic regression (or probit regression)? (To better focus responses, I understand that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between either OR or ln(OR) and phi. I did a little simulation to check.) For what it’s worth, the context for all this is not a meta-analysis per se but a summary of relationships between pairs of variables that will feed into a power analysis for an SEM model that includes both dichotomous and continuous variables. Gene Maguin |
This is because logit is based on proportions which are only determined by mean & sd if populationdistribution type is known A classic problem is decrease in a continuous property like cognitive ability with age [cross-sectional] If the older group has lower mean is this because all people have declining ability with age? Or because the older group has a higher proportion of people with ability lowering disease? Obviously, the diligent researcher should have checked for normality, but the reader usually has no way of checking. If, and only if, both groups have normal distribution then proprotions are predictable from mean & sd and hence logit regression parameters are calculable. Standard t/F tests only tell you that investigators ASSUMED normality, not hether it acutally happened Back to calculate N for sem. In my view these are very much estimates and one is only as good as one’s weakest link. So it is N for the least powerful effect that matters. The sem input correlation matrix, in my view, should have all correlations of the same type. We had some trouble when some correlations were Pearson’s r and some polychoric, as the polychoric’s tend to be lower. Others will be wiser on estimating N for sem than I am & I would dearly love some good references Best Diana On 13/07/2012 15:17, "Maguin, Eugene" <emaguin@...> wrote: Thanks to all that responded. I understand the problem that Diana pointed out, that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between OR and chi-square. I didn’t know that before. Emeritus Professor Diana Kornbrot email: d.e.kornbrot@... web: http://dianakornbrot.wordpress.com/ Work School of Psychology University of Hertfordshire College Lane, Hatfield, Hertfordshire AL10 9AB, UK voice: +44 (0) 170 728 4626 fax: +44 (0) 170 728 5073 Home 19 Elmhurst Avenue London N2 0LT, UK voice: +44 (0) 208 444 2081 mobile: +44 (0) 740 318 1612 fax: +44 (0) 870 706 1445 |
In reply to this post by Maguin, Eugene
Diana K. emphasized the problem of assumptions.
But, to turn assertion around the other way -- If you make assumptions about normality, you surely can get estimates of the coefficients of the simple logistic regression. And I say "about normality" because assuming that they are "normal" is not the only choice. You could assume some degree of skewness (say), and use Monte Carlo randomizations to estimate what the LR results would be under various assumptions. However, it does seem to me that the "effect sizes" in terms of mean differences, etc., is what you will need for any power analysis, rather than the LR results. -- Rich Ulrich Date: Fri, 13 Jul 2012 10:17:43 -0400 From: [hidden email] Subject: Re: odds ratio to chi square conversion To: [hidden email] Thanks to all that responded. I understand the problem that Diana pointed out, that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between OR and chi-square. I didn’t know that before.
What I’d like to ask about now is this specific situation: the association between a dichotomous variable and a continuous variable. The association could be expressed as a t/F value or (point biserial) correlation or as an odds ratio (OR). The choice depends on which variable is thought of as the dependent. Given sufficient summary information (e.g., Ns, means, SDs by group) can a t/F/r analysis be manipulated to extract the B0 and B1 (intercept and slope) coefficients in a logistic regression (or probit regression)? (To better focus responses, I understand that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between either OR or ln(OR) and phi. I did a little simulation to check.)
For what it’s worth, the context for all this is not a meta-analysis per se but a summary of relationships between pairs of variables that will feed into a power analysis for an SEM model that includes both dichotomous and continuous variables.
Gene Maguin
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Thanks, Rich. My question is how. For instance, suppose x is a true-enough dichotomy and y is a continuous variable. Let n(1) = 50; mean(1) = 45; SD(1) = 10 n(2) = 50; mean(2) = 50; SD(2) = 10 Analyzed as a t-test, the standard ‘d’ effect size is 0.5. But, what would the computation to get, most importantly, the corresponding OR and, secondarily, the intercept? Thanks, Gene From: Rich Ulrich [mailto:[hidden email]] Diana K. emphasized the problem of assumptions. Date: Fri, 13 Jul 2012 10:17:43 -0400 Thanks to all that responded. I understand the problem that Diana pointed out, that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between OR and chi-square. I didn’t know that before. What I’d like to ask about now is this specific situation: the association between a dichotomous variable and a continuous variable. The association could be expressed as a t/F value or (point biserial) correlation or as an odds ratio (OR). The choice depends on which variable is thought of as the dependent. Given sufficient summary information (e.g., Ns, means, SDs by group) can a t/F/r analysis be manipulated to extract the B0 and B1 (intercept and slope) coefficients in a logistic regression (or probit regression)? (To better focus responses, I understand that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between either OR or ln(OR) and phi. I did a little simulation to check.) For what it’s worth, the context for all this is not a meta-analysis per se but a summary of relationships between pairs of variables that will feed into a power analysis for an SEM model that includes both dichotomous and continuous variables. Gene Maguin |
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Gene, apparently someone has written an R function for going in the opposite direction -- from ln(OR) to Cohen's d.
http://rgm2.lab.nig.ac.jp/RGM2/func.php?rd_id=compute.es:lor_to_es Perhaps you can find something by digging around on that site (or contacting the maintainer). HTH.
--
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In reply to this post by Maguin, Eugene
Two samples separated by 0.5 SD will have their
overlap of histograms at z +/- 0.25. My convenient normal table tells me that a z-score of 0.25 (half of 0.5) contains about 10% of the area. So the implied sample separation is 60/40 vs. 40/60 -- OR = 3600/1600 = 9/4 = 2.25. If you don't have the formulas handy to manipulate (or maybe, even if you do), the easy way to find what the equation would be is to dummy up some 100 lines of data to be approximately Normal(0, 1); adjust to mean=0 exactly; multiply by 10 to create variance= 100; then add 45 to half, 50 to the other half, for Group 1 and 2. Then run logistic on it. -- Rich Ulrich Date: Mon, 16 Jul 2012 14:18:14 -0400 From: [hidden email] Subject: Re: odds ratio to chi square conversion To: [hidden email] Thanks, Rich. My question is how. For instance, suppose x is a true-enough dichotomy and y is a continuous variable. Let n(1) = 50; mean(1) = 45; SD(1) = 10 n(2) = 50; mean(2) = 50; SD(2) = 10 Analyzed as a t-test, the standard ‘d’ effect size is 0.5.
But, what would the computation to get, most importantly, the corresponding OR and, secondarily, the intercept?
Thanks, Gene
From: Rich Ulrich [mailto:[hidden email]]
Diana K. emphasized the problem of assumptions. |
It’s always good to simulate data as a check and I did that. This is the means by group.
Now the logistic regression
From: Rich Ulrich [mailto:[hidden email]] Two samples separated by 0.5 SD will have their Date: Mon, 16 Jul 2012 14:18:14 -0400 Thanks, Rich. My question is how. For instance, suppose x is a true-enough dichotomy and y is a continuous variable. Let n(1) = 50; mean(1) = 45; SD(1) = 10 n(2) = 50; mean(2) = 50; SD(2) = 10 Analyzed as a t-test, the standard ‘d’ effect size is 0.5. But, what would the computation to get, most importantly, the corresponding OR and, secondarily, the intercept? Thanks, Gene From: Rich Ulrich [hidden email] Diana K. emphasized the problem of assumptions. |
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